Question
How historically common is it for societies to have a large middle class?
Answer
Extremely uncommon. The middle class is largely the creation of the industrial age and has existed mainly since the early 19th century. Arguably there were other short periods when a similar class existed. Roman citizens were sort of middle class.
I define it primarily in terms of its relatively high standard of living coupled with low exposure to economic risk/reliable and predictable lifetime income.
I trace its descent from the industrial age socially-failed bourgeoisie on the one hand (i.e., people who couldn't make it into the nobility-derived old-money upper classes), and upwardly-mobile working class (often kids of blue-collar types who went to college and bootstrapped the family up).
Before the 19th century, you had a working class, landed gentry, nobility and royalty (or rough equivalents). The middle class emerged along with the fall of land-ownership as a key variable in social class.
The middle class is declining again. It may reappear if similar unique historical conditions reappear.
I define it primarily in terms of its relatively high standard of living coupled with low exposure to economic risk/reliable and predictable lifetime income.
I trace its descent from the industrial age socially-failed bourgeoisie on the one hand (i.e., people who couldn't make it into the nobility-derived old-money upper classes), and upwardly-mobile working class (often kids of blue-collar types who went to college and bootstrapped the family up).
Before the 19th century, you had a working class, landed gentry, nobility and royalty (or rough equivalents). The middle class emerged along with the fall of land-ownership as a key variable in social class.
The middle class is declining again. It may reappear if similar unique historical conditions reappear.